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  • 17-03-2020
  • Mathematics
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Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42-56y

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abiolatolu90
abiolatolu90 abiolatolu90
  • 17-03-2020

Answer:

No, 40(2x - 16y) is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

Step-by-step explanation:

40(2x -16y)

If we expand the above expression, we will have

80x - 16y which is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

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